MagikKid
02-13-2005, 03:59 PM
Hello everyone!
I am fairly new to these forums as I just began reading them 2 weeks ago. I have been thoroughly impressed with the amount of information available and the overall knowledge of many of the posters. I am hoping to get help with a simple(?) probability question. Here goes!
The odds of flopping a flush while holding two suited cards is app. 118/1 (please correct me if I am wrong).
What is the probability, if the flop is all a single suit, and I hold none of that particular suit, that a lone opponent flopped the flush?
My calculation would be 10/47 unseen cards for the probability of him holding a single card of that suit x 9/46 for having a second of that suit.
10/47 x 9/46 = 90/2162 = 1/24
Therefore the odds are 23/1 against my opponent having flopped the flush. Is this correct?
A friend of mine, (who is a pro), insists on a different answer.
Thank you in advance for your replies.
MagikKid
I am fairly new to these forums as I just began reading them 2 weeks ago. I have been thoroughly impressed with the amount of information available and the overall knowledge of many of the posters. I am hoping to get help with a simple(?) probability question. Here goes!
The odds of flopping a flush while holding two suited cards is app. 118/1 (please correct me if I am wrong).
What is the probability, if the flop is all a single suit, and I hold none of that particular suit, that a lone opponent flopped the flush?
My calculation would be 10/47 unseen cards for the probability of him holding a single card of that suit x 9/46 for having a second of that suit.
10/47 x 9/46 = 90/2162 = 1/24
Therefore the odds are 23/1 against my opponent having flopped the flush. Is this correct?
A friend of mine, (who is a pro), insists on a different answer.
Thank you in advance for your replies.
MagikKid