Obvious fold? But bothering me.

[Rduke55]

158 started, down to about 100. I have 4K (avg is about 2.4K). AQs in UTG+1 I raise 3xBB (BB is 50). late position (2000) reraises minimum to 250 which was slightly creepy. I just got move to this table about 1 orbit ago so no reads.
I call and flop is AK4 rainbow with one of my suit. I bet 400, he reraises all-in (1750). I figure him on AA,KK,or AK and fold (the min reraise definitely influenced my thinking there).
I folded. At the time I thought it was obvious but now I'm wondering. The all-in flop reraise didn't make sense if he had any of those hands. If he's got AA or KK he's got a monster so why'd he want to push me out? If he's got 2 pair, he's often only called if beat.
Thoughts?

[Chief911]

Hmm. If you really do put him on AA, KK, or AK, then why bet into him for 400 on that flop? While his allin does seem a bit weird, he's taking down a pot of 900, which is a significant increase to his stack. I think this is an easy fold. And you should have saved some $$ on the flop.

Nick

[Rduke55]

I guess I wrote it poorly. I meant I put him on that after he reraised all-in after min reraising me preflop. Preflop I was just unsettled by the min. raise and the little alarm bell went off.
I guess the flop bet was to take it if he had a medium pair or something. I didn't want to check to him because I thought he'd push or make a monster bet to take it no matter what he had.

[Guelph]

My thinking is he's got a set there.

I sometimes use a min-reraise from late position with a small PP (2's-7's roughly, but sometimes make the same play with AA/KK to mix it up) against a smaller EP raise as a way to find out more information.

With no reads or a tight read, if the original raiser goes over the top, figure he's got the higher pair and let it go. If he just calls I figure I'm likely at a coinflip, and there's always the chance you've caught a complete bluff and they'll let it go.