Internet Texas Hold'em - confused

[badboy0]

In the hand example starting at the bottom of p. 28, you have JJ, and the board shows T-8-8-Q.

Hilger writes on p. 29, "You have...4 outs to a full house. Your 4 outs to the full house are relatively strong since the only hands that would beat you are QQ, 88, or quads if an eight comes."

But if an 8 comes on the river, and you hit your full house, and your opponent holds Q-x, then doesn't he beat you? Or am I missing something?

On p. 31 in the table of probabilities:

Three-suited flop is a 5% probability, a 2-suited flop is 55%. So, the probability of a one-suited flop is 40%?? Did he mean it the other way around?

Flopping a flush when holding two suits is 118-1 against. Aren't the odds a little higher - like impossible?

Flopping a flush draw when holding 2 suits is 8-1 against. But, doesn't this require a one-suited flop?

Not to get technical about the wording but it's confusing.

Are the probabilities correct?

[TM1212]

First you have horrible miss quoted page 28.


"4 outs" no he says "2 outs"!!!!!

He says theres 4 outs to a str8!!!!!

Second the player raised so Hilger is assumeing the player doesn't have Q8. He also states that this is a str8 foward player, whom is not tricky!

Makes more sense if you read and quote accurately. /images/graemlins/smile.gif

[TM1212]

Also, On pg 31,

3-suited flop is 5%, 2 suited is 55, and a rainbow is 40. After some research this is accurate. (i questioned it to at first)

Second the flopping the flush, I believe its a typo, he meant making a flush. and the others a typo.

[badboy0]

Didn't quote p. 28, it was p. 29, and didn't misquote it...in my copy of the book it says there's 4 outs to a full house, and 4 outs to a straight. Maybe we have different copies? Later in the paragraph on p. 29 he says "I would discount your eight outs by 2 outs...". But in the same paragraph, he refers to all 8 outs as "relatively strong".

To quote near the top of p.29: "Assuming the middle player is not a tricky opponent, your opponent has at least a pair of queens with a hand like AQ or KQ."

Sorry still confused - woudn't these hands beat you also if another 8 comes? Not just QQ, 88, or quad 8's?

So 3-suited actually means single-suited then?

[binions]

[ QUOTE ]

On p. 31 in the table of probabilities:

Three-suited flop is a 5% probability, a 2-suited flop is 55%. So, the probability of a one-suited flop is 40%?? Did he mean it the other way around?

Flopping a flush when holding two suits is 118-1 against. Aren't the odds a little higher - like impossible?

Flopping a flush draw when holding 2 suits is 8-1 against. But, doesn't this require a one-suited flop?



[/ QUOTE ]

All of the above is correct. You misunderstand his meaning.

When he says 3-suited flops, he means flops with 3 cards of the same suit.

2 suited flop is a flop with 2 cards of the same suit.

Flopping a flush when holding 2 suited cards is 118:1

Flopping flush draw when holding 2 suits (ie 2 suited cards) is 8:1

Maybe he has a funny way of saying it, but to anyone who knows anything about hold'em, his meaning is abundantly clear.

[TM1212]

both pages are completely correct, I have the 1st pub of the book, so i think your mis reading or something. And the 2 suits thing, is really confusing, but if he means suited then the odds are right

[badboy0]

Dude, I know how to read, and also know how to write a grammatically correct sentence.

So I have not "horrible miss quoted" anybody ok?

Forget I asked.