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David04
01-27-2005, 06:17 PM
What are the odds of a flop having 3 of the same suit?

I've been seeing this constantly the last week or so.

Lost Wages
01-27-2005, 06:25 PM
Ignoring the cards that you hold; 4*C(13,3)/C(52,3) = 5.18%

Lost Wages

David04
01-27-2005, 06:28 PM
Thanks.

MickeyHoldem
01-27-2005, 07:09 PM
How on earth can you ignore the cards in your hand??

The correct answer is:
(4/17 x (c(11,3) + 3*c(13,3)) / c(50,3)) +
(13/17 x (2*c(12,3) + 2*c(13,3)) / c(50,3)) = 5.18%

Clearly this was an ill-fated attempt at humour!!!

David04
01-27-2005, 08:34 PM
I don't get it...your answers are the same.


Clearly that was an ill-fated attempt at humor.

gaming_mouse
01-27-2005, 09:44 PM
[ QUOTE ]
How on earth can you ignore the cards in your hand??

[/ QUOTE ]

Quite easily. For example, before any cards are dealt, someone might ask, "What are the chances that the flop is going to come all of one suit on this next hand?"

LostWages answers that question.

gm

mosdef
01-27-2005, 10:57 PM
there's a much easier way to arrive at this answer.

you turn over a card. what is the prob that the next two are of the same suit?

2nd = 12/51
3rd = 11/50

prob(event)=12/51 x 11/50 = 5.18%

MickeyHoldem
01-28-2005, 08:11 AM
Yes... I understand... I was trying to be funny... my formula takes into account the fact that you have two cards, but includes the possiblility that they are suited or unsuited, and of course it arrives at the same answer... I'll try to keep my humour button under more control. If some may have found my post confusing or troublesome... I appoligize.