eggzz
01-24-2005, 11:44 PM
This was actually a home tournament, forty dollar buy in, ten players. Two tables of 5, until whittled down to 6 for the final table. Payout 50%/30%/20%. Table full of loose crazies.
I get early respect by playing quad nines real well, also was playing well post flop with marginal hands. Anyway, I have A /images/graemlins/spade.gif8 /images/graemlins/heart.gif and limp in UTG. I think the BB was only 20 at this point, and someone may have raised to 50. I called and 3 saw this flop:
10 /images/graemlins/spade.gif8 /images/graemlins/spade.gif2 /images/graemlins/spade.gif
Check, I bet the pot, around 150. Fold. BB goes all in for about 550 total. I have him covered, I had about 1300 before the hand started and we all started with T900.
So I figure him for the made flush, but not necessarily. I felt he was 75% for the flush, and 25% for top pair. If he had JJ and above, he would have raised more preflop (he was not the preflop raiser). The preflop raiser folded to my bet I think.
So back to the hand, I have the nutflush draw and middle pair. I was having a hard time counting my outs vs. pot odds to determine if it was correct (or at least close to correct for me to call).
I ran this through a simulator, and I gave my opponent a flush, and I came out to be a 30% dog. I figure I was getting 2 to 1 for my call. So does that mean its a coinflip/slightly poor play for me to call?
Help me out with what 30% underdog to win the hand translates to as far as what kind of pot odds I need to make this call. I was 7 to 3 against hitting my hand so isn't that like 2.2 to one making it an ok call?
Here is how the hand ended up:
<font color="white"> I hit runner runner A and 8 for a full boat, and went on to win the dang thing. This was the defining hand though. </font>
<font color="white"> Villain did have a King high flush on the flop. </font>
I get early respect by playing quad nines real well, also was playing well post flop with marginal hands. Anyway, I have A /images/graemlins/spade.gif8 /images/graemlins/heart.gif and limp in UTG. I think the BB was only 20 at this point, and someone may have raised to 50. I called and 3 saw this flop:
10 /images/graemlins/spade.gif8 /images/graemlins/spade.gif2 /images/graemlins/spade.gif
Check, I bet the pot, around 150. Fold. BB goes all in for about 550 total. I have him covered, I had about 1300 before the hand started and we all started with T900.
So I figure him for the made flush, but not necessarily. I felt he was 75% for the flush, and 25% for top pair. If he had JJ and above, he would have raised more preflop (he was not the preflop raiser). The preflop raiser folded to my bet I think.
So back to the hand, I have the nutflush draw and middle pair. I was having a hard time counting my outs vs. pot odds to determine if it was correct (or at least close to correct for me to call).
I ran this through a simulator, and I gave my opponent a flush, and I came out to be a 30% dog. I figure I was getting 2 to 1 for my call. So does that mean its a coinflip/slightly poor play for me to call?
Help me out with what 30% underdog to win the hand translates to as far as what kind of pot odds I need to make this call. I was 7 to 3 against hitting my hand so isn't that like 2.2 to one making it an ok call?
Here is how the hand ended up:
<font color="white"> I hit runner runner A and 8 for a full boat, and went on to win the dang thing. This was the defining hand though. </font>
<font color="white"> Villain did have a King high flush on the flop. </font>