Can I get a quick math lesson please?

[jokerthief]

How do I find out what the total % of flops I've seen is if I play 6 max and my VP$IP is 24% (I am more concerned with knowing the process than the answer)?

[gaming_mouse]

There's no way I can see to get an exact answer without all the original data (ie, the hand data). However, you can approximate.

Your VPIP is 24%. You are seeing at least 24% of the flops (we can ignore the rare times you limp, it gets 3-bet, and you fold -- unless it is a hyper-aggressive game).

You are also seeing the flop on your BB when it is not raised. You need to estimate how often there is no PF raise in your game. Let's say it's 30% of the time, for sake of argument. You are BB 1 in 6 hands, or 16.6%. So now you are seeing the flop an additional 30%*16.6%= 5%.

So you are actually seeing about 29% of all flops. The number will change of course depending on the aggression of the game you're in (the % of hands with no PF raise).

HTH,
gm

[jokerthief]

What about the small blind. Would it be correct to factor that in like this 24%*16.66*30?

Edit: Since I loosen up in the small blind perhaps it should be 35%*16.66*30

[gaming_mouse]

I believe completing from the SB counts as VPIP, does it not?

[jokerthief]

Your right. Thanks a lot, the farthest I got in math was non-calculus based statistics so I am tring to educate myself on the subject.

Thanks again
jokerthief