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emonrad87
01-15-2005, 01:40 AM
Ok, two scenarios that have come up in my home game recently.

1. A player is dealt only one hole card but plays the hand anyway (as if he had two).

2. A player mucks one of his hole cards as he acts preflop.


Are either or both of these actions legal, or is the player's hand dead when he has only one hole card?

ericslagle
01-15-2005, 07:34 AM
I'm pretty sure his hand is dead if people have acted behind him and it's his fault because it's up to a player to make sure they have 2 and only 2 cards.

Stew
01-15-2005, 10:27 AM
[ QUOTE ]
Ok, two scenarios that have come up in my home game recently.

1. A player is dealt only one hole card but plays the hand anyway (as if he had two).

2. A player mucks one of his hole cards as he acts preflop.


Are either or both of these actions legal, or is the player's hand dead when he has only one hole card?

[/ QUOTE ]

Both hands are dead, end of story.

SDA004
01-15-2005, 10:47 AM
As I understand it you have to show two cards to win a showdown. Maybe he could bluff someone out of a pot, or win without a showdown, but knowing that you can't win without showing two cards would make anyone call no matter what they had.

Eric H
01-15-2005, 11:29 AM
Here is the rule direct from Roberts Rules of Poker:

1. Your hand is declared dead if:

(d) The hand does not contain the proper number of cards for that poker form (except at stud a hand missing the final card may be ruled live, and at lowball and draw high a hand with too few cards before the draw is live).

http://www.diamondcs.net/~thecoach/RobsPkrRulesHome.htm