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NORM77
01-03-2005, 01:58 AM
Currently Playing $.25-$.50 $26 buy in 6 max @ Party Poker, and a player to my left is consistently preflop raising the minimum and then following up with a $2-$3 bet on the flop. Should I be be reraising preflop or calling and trying to trap?

Tilt
01-03-2005, 10:08 AM
By consistently, do you mean every time?

If it is every time, I prefer reraising with a wide range of hands - any PP, any AXs, any AXo where X>8, any two broadways. I'll call suited connectors with position and other callers.

If it is only sometimes, indicating that he is raising with any of the hands above, I would flat call with very strong hands and reraise him on the flop if you hit something.

warlockjd
01-03-2005, 10:30 AM
Personally, I like to tighten up, dropping the 87s etc that I would usually limp with, unless the pot is multiway. This will reduce your variance some.

I would not isolate with abnormal isolating hands, unless you are very experienced at hand reading and maximizing your positional advantage.

BradleyT
01-03-2005, 12:14 PM
[ QUOTE ]
If it is every time, I prefer reraising with a wide range of hands - any PP, any AXs, any AXo where X>8, any two broadways. I'll call suited connectors with position and other callers.

[/ QUOTE ]

Re-raising forces you to put 1/3rd of your stack in before the flop (min-reraising is gay). Not smart with 22-66 where villian is at least even money with overs.

joesbarngrill
01-03-2005, 12:37 PM
i see no reason to attack a player like this without a strong hand. He is a typical maniac play your hands accordingly and dont force pots on gambles.