mr pink
12-27-2004, 04:17 PM
easy question. say youre getting 11 to 1 on a call on the river. what % of the time do you have to have the best hand in order for a call to be right? i think it's 1/11 = 9% right? if you work it out so that this situation occurs 12 times, 11 times you lose 1 bet, and 1 time you win 11 (or do you include your bet and make it so that you win 12 for a profit of 1?) the way i'm reading this is that if you're getting 11 to 1 on a call. if you figure you're ahead more than 9% of the time then it's profit in the long term. if you figure you're ahead less than 9% then you'll lose in the long term. and if you figure you're exactly 9% then it's break even, right? thanks in advance.
peace - jeff
peace - jeff