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Aragorn
12-16-2004, 02:43 PM
I am trying to figure out the odds of finishing second in a 3-person poker tournament. Suppose the players have $10K, $5K, and $2K in chips. I know their chances of winning are directly proportional to how many chips each has.

But how do you calculate the chances of coming in second? Any ideas would be appreciated.

Big Country
12-16-2004, 04:32 PM
[ QUOTE ]
Suppose the players have $10K, $5K, and $2K in chips. I know their chances of winning are directly proportional to how many chips each has.


[/ QUOTE ]

This is only true if you are making the assumption that each player is exactly the same in skill level.

Are you looking for the odds of a particular one of the three players coming in second, or the odds for each ofthem coming in second? (not that I can answer either, just curious)

burningyen
12-16-2004, 07:15 PM
Sklansky addresses this in TPFAP. Long story short, there's no easy way to calculate the percentages with more than 2 players remaining.

schroedy
12-16-2004, 07:54 PM
On your assumption that chances of winning are directly, and immutably, proportional to stack sizes. I will further assume that your chances of finishing second are directly proportional to stack size if you don't win . . . .

First we calculate that chances of winning.

10,000/17,000 = 58.82%;
5,000/17,000 = 29.41%
2,000/17,000 = 11.76%.

(Totals less than 100% due to rounding.)

Then we look at the chances of finishing second in those cases when you don't win . . .

10,000 stack will not win 41.18% of the time. 29.41% of the time, the big stack will battle the small stack for the second finish, where, on your assumption, it will be a 5:1 favorite. Multiply 29.41% by 83.33% (converting 5:1 to percentages) and you get 24.51%. 11.76% of the time the big stack will face the middle stack for second, and will be a 2:1 favorite. Multiply 11.76% by 66.67% and you get 7.84%. So the big stack has a 32.35% chance of finishing second, and a 91.17% chance of finishing AT LEAST second.

Taking the middle stack next. 58.82% of the time it will be battling the small stack for second where it will be a 5:2 favorite. Multiplying through, the middle stack should finish second in 42.01% of the cases. In the 11.76% of the trials that the middle stack faces the big stack for second, the middle stack is a 2:1 dog, and should win 1/3 times. Multiplying through produces a second place expectation for this leg of 3.92%. Add it all up and the middle stack has a 45.95% chance of finishing second and a 75.36% if finishing at least second.

Finally the small stack. When the big stack wins overall, the small stack is a 5:2 dog to finish second. Multiplying through the small stack gets second 16.81% of the total cases on this leg. When the middle stack wins overall, the small stack is a 5:1 dog to finish second. On this leg the small stacks adds another 4.90% chance of finishing second. Add it up and the small stack has a 21.71% chance of finishing second.

There may be some rounding errors in there, but that is the general approach.

As others have pointed out, your assumptions may be flawed.

eastbay
12-17-2004, 12:10 AM
[ QUOTE ]
I am trying to figure out the odds of finishing second in a 3-person poker tournament. Suppose the players have $10K, $5K, and $2K in chips. I know their chances of winning are directly proportional to how many chips each has.

But how do you calculate the chances of coming in second? Any ideas would be appreciated.

[/ QUOTE ]

Search for ICM (independent chip model) for one general solution to this kind of problem.

eastbay

Aragorn
12-17-2004, 01:50 AM
Thanks for the response. I did the same calculation and came up with the same answers.

However, I also wrote a program to simulate this by playing out 1 million tournaments and got slightly different answers. I got the big stack finishing second 34.7% instead of 32.5%, the middle stack finishing second 46.9% instead of 45.9%, and the small stack finishing second 18.5%.

The answers are pretty close, but well outside the expected error. I am not sure if there is a bug in my simulation or this method is only an approximation.

Do you know that the calculation method you used is accurate?

Thanks again for the response.

schroedy
12-17-2004, 03:52 AM
I simply "logiked" my way through the problem. I am unaware and there may be hidden bugs.

Maybe you should do a series of 100K tournament runs and see how the results fall around expected.