mikeyp
12-08-2004, 05:15 PM
I have a question about a hand that just happened. I had AQ in late position. One limper in front of me, so of course I raise. The blinds fold and the limper calls. The flop comes JJA. All different suits. The limper raises. I call. Turn was a rag, but same suit as A that was on the flop. Limper raises, I call. River a Q, but again same suit as the A that was out on the flop putting a flush out there. He raised, I called and won with TTT. He had A9.
My question is, should I have reraised him at any point during play?
Since he limped I sorta ruled out AK, AQ, and AJ. But he could of had KJ, QJ or maybe even J10 suited. So did I make the right move by just calling his raises?
My question is, should I have reraised him at any point during play?
Since he limped I sorta ruled out AK, AQ, and AJ. But he could of had KJ, QJ or maybe even J10 suited. So did I make the right move by just calling his raises?