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mikeyp
12-08-2004, 05:15 PM
I have a question about a hand that just happened. I had AQ in late position. One limper in front of me, so of course I raise. The blinds fold and the limper calls. The flop comes JJA. All different suits. The limper raises. I call. Turn was a rag, but same suit as A that was on the flop. Limper raises, I call. River a Q, but again same suit as the A that was out on the flop putting a flush out there. He raised, I called and won with TTT. He had A9.

My question is, should I have reraised him at any point during play?

Since he limped I sorta ruled out AK, AQ, and AJ. But he could of had KJ, QJ or maybe even J10 suited. So did I make the right move by just calling his raises?

semipro
12-08-2004, 05:44 PM
[ QUOTE ]
The flop comes JJA. All different suits. The limper raises. I call. Turn was a rag, but same suit as A that was on the flop. Limper raises, I call.

My question is, should I have reraised him at any point during play?

[/ QUOTE ]

First off, the limper bet, did not "raise". Secondly, calling leaves you in a position of not knowing where you stand. With a raise, if he goes over the top, then you are probably beaten, but if he calls, then you are most likely ahead. Besides, on the turn, if he is indeed on a flush draw, you want to make him pay to see the river. Overall, not well played, but you did win the hand.

mikeyp
12-08-2004, 06:18 PM
Alright, thanks for your input. Next time my something like this comes up and my opponent bets I will try raising to see where I stand.