winky51
11-30-2004, 05:32 PM
Question about being 1st in EP or MP with poor players behind that play vs a raise any pair, any ace, any two face cards.
Why is it right to raise 1st in with KQs, AJs EP? It seems that you are out of position and only a better hand will reraise you. Then what do you do on the flop if your A, K, or Q comes after this reraise? Please explain. Is it just the probability of no one else having a better hand that makes the raise right? Just a simple math formula?
In MP why is is right to raise QJs, JTs, KJs, KTs when there are 4-6 people behind? Same principle?
Against better players I can see why You fold AJ off suit to a raise from EP or MP. But against poor players?
I don't like callers being out of position with a KJs.
Why is it right to raise 1st in with KQs, AJs EP? It seems that you are out of position and only a better hand will reraise you. Then what do you do on the flop if your A, K, or Q comes after this reraise? Please explain. Is it just the probability of no one else having a better hand that makes the raise right? Just a simple math formula?
In MP why is is right to raise QJs, JTs, KJs, KTs when there are 4-6 people behind? Same principle?
Against better players I can see why You fold AJ off suit to a raise from EP or MP. But against poor players?
I don't like callers being out of position with a KJs.