Josh32
11-29-2004, 08:53 PM
Hello. This is a somewhat general question inspired by 2 hands in a recent UB MTT with 5+0.50 buy-in.
1st hand:
blinds are 100/200, about 110 out of original 291 left, top 30 paid
I have ~3300 in middle position w/ AK. I open with a raise to 600. Everyone folds to the BB, who reraises all-in w/ ~1600. It's ~1000 to call, which I do. The BB has TT and wins the race.
A similar situation occured later, with ~30 people left. Again, I have about 15XBB and race a short stack (~7XBB) with my AK vs. an underpair. Again, the pair wins the race.
In both situations, I was pretty sure it was a coinflip. My questions are these:
What percentage of your stack are you willing to flip with?
Does this change over the course of the tournament?
In retrospect, I think the first call was a little loose given that it's still early in the tournament. I think the second call was okay because I'm trying to accumulate chips.
Any comments, criticisms, etc would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.
1st hand:
blinds are 100/200, about 110 out of original 291 left, top 30 paid
I have ~3300 in middle position w/ AK. I open with a raise to 600. Everyone folds to the BB, who reraises all-in w/ ~1600. It's ~1000 to call, which I do. The BB has TT and wins the race.
A similar situation occured later, with ~30 people left. Again, I have about 15XBB and race a short stack (~7XBB) with my AK vs. an underpair. Again, the pair wins the race.
In both situations, I was pretty sure it was a coinflip. My questions are these:
What percentage of your stack are you willing to flip with?
Does this change over the course of the tournament?
In retrospect, I think the first call was a little loose given that it's still early in the tournament. I think the second call was okay because I'm trying to accumulate chips.
Any comments, criticisms, etc would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.