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Danenania
11-11-2004, 04:27 AM
Party 5/10 6-max 5-handed, first hand at table, no reads.

I have Q2o in BB. Two callers to me. I check.

Flop is QJ4 two spades. I have no spades. I bet. EP raises. Other guy folds. I call.

Turn non-spade J. I check and call.

River non-spade 5. I bet planning to fold if raised...

balkii
11-11-2004, 04:34 AM
i'm not sure i understand the river bet...his most likely hands are Qx, Jx, or nothing(ie missed draw). you lose to Qx and Jx and can win no bets if he has nothing. so betting is wrong.

Scotch78
11-11-2004, 04:37 AM
I don't see him calling with a worse hand, so this bet needs to push him off a better hand. With no pre-flop raise, an overpair isn't that likely. He's certainly not folding a jack, so you're pretty much trying to push him off a better queen. The 5 is completely benign, and I don't think he'll believe you have a jack often enough. So, the bet is -EV if the villain holds a better queen or a jack. The other likely holding for him is a busted flush draw, in which case, checking is clearly higher EV than betting.

Scott

Scotch78
11-11-2004, 04:38 AM
If you would take the time to type out longer posts, it would give me a chance to reply first :-)

Edit: Ditto what Balkii said.

Scott

Danenania
11-11-2004, 04:47 AM
True... I guess I was basically thinking that if I planned on calling one river bet, but not two, I might as well put that one bet in myself and give him a chance to call with A-high or a PP. Should I have just folded to his turn bet? I thought I might have odds since I could have many outs to a split if behind. Would my line have been better if the J didn't pair?

Scotch78
11-11-2004, 04:53 AM
Though he might call with those hands, if he was aggressive enough to raise the flop with them, he probably would've raised pre-flop, too. I don't think he's holding either.

Scott

Trix
11-11-2004, 11:06 AM
I think he will bet a spadedraw or OESD more often than he will call 4x or a medium PP here.