Question on Ruling

[Luv2DriveTT]

Playing 4/8 B&M game at a local card room. Flop comes, it checks around to Button who has one dollar left, goes all in. UTG puts out a 5 dollar chip and announces raise. He wanted to call the one dollar chip, and raise it another 4. The floor said he could do that IF he didn't check around first...

Is this correct? I do not recall a ruling on a raise since this room allows check-raising.

TT /images/graemlins/club.gif

[Andy B]

Correct ruling. An all-in bet (or raise) must be at least half of the bet to count as a "bet." In this case, there was no "bet," so there can be no raise. If the all-in were $2, the check-raise would be allowed.

When going for a check-raise, it's a good idea to make sure your target has enough chips. /images/graemlins/grin.gif

[Stew]

[ QUOTE ]
Correct ruling. An all-in bet (or raise) must be at least half of the bet to count as a "bet." In this case, there was no "bet," so there can be no raise. If the all-in were $2, the check-raise would be allowed.

When going for a check-raise, it's a good idea to make sure your target has enough chips. /images/graemlins/grin.gif

[/ QUOTE ]

Not arguing, just wondering and I understand the ruling here. However, if a player were left to act after the bettor, but before any players who had already checked, then the bet could only be completed by that player to $4, then any checkers could raise it to $8, correct?

[Luv2DriveTT]

Thanks Andy, you were the perfect person for the answer, just what I hoped for.

TT /images/graemlins/club.gif

[Randy_Refeld]

There is a very simple way to remeber what the other players' options are when someone goes all-in in limit poker. If a player goes all in for less than half a bet the other players can do what they would be able to if the all-in had placed no chips in the pot. If he has at least half they can do what they would be able to do if the all-in had the full bet.

Randy Refeld

[parade]

Related question. 4/8 table, post flop, player 1 goes all in for $2, player 2 and 3 calls $2. Player 4 says raise and puts out $8 instead of $6. The dealer indicated that player 4 is allowed to complete to $4 and then raise $4. Is this more house dependant?

[Al_Capone_Junior]

It is clearly a "complete the bet" to $4 rather than a raise to $5.

Whether he had check-raised or just completed is irrelevant, the bet is now $4.

al