01-22-2002, 04:22 PM
Is this Fuzzy Stud Thinking?
Player “G. Wiz” is playing Stud. He decides to call a one chip bring in bet, with a live pair of pocket eights (and no other significant strength to his hand).
There is no improvement in his hand with this call.
There is also no visible improvement in his opponent’s hands.
Player A, with a door 8, bets 3 chips. Players C, D, and F call the bet.
The action is now up to Mr. Wiz, who being in last position says to himself :
“G‘. I feel that this bet is worth a call for two reasons:
First: My pot odds have improved since if I call this bet, I would now be betting 3 chips in an attempt to win 19 chips.
Second: Since in my entire life I always average calling one out of every six hands, my third street call didn’t really cost me 1 chip. But it cost me rather one chip, plus the price of the antes and unplayable bring-ins that I had to pay, to catch this playable hand .
And that would amount to 1+ 3 +1 or "5" chips. So 5 chips is what it really cost me to call the one chip bring in.
Do you feel that Mr. Wiz’s deductions are logical?
And if all or part of them are examples of “Fuzzy thinking” (a term for illogical poker deductions coined in a previous millennia)
Which ones would they be? And for what reasons ?
Most Sincerely,
Doc AZ
Player “G. Wiz” is playing Stud. He decides to call a one chip bring in bet, with a live pair of pocket eights (and no other significant strength to his hand).
There is no improvement in his hand with this call.
There is also no visible improvement in his opponent’s hands.
Player A, with a door 8, bets 3 chips. Players C, D, and F call the bet.
The action is now up to Mr. Wiz, who being in last position says to himself :
“G‘. I feel that this bet is worth a call for two reasons:
First: My pot odds have improved since if I call this bet, I would now be betting 3 chips in an attempt to win 19 chips.
Second: Since in my entire life I always average calling one out of every six hands, my third street call didn’t really cost me 1 chip. But it cost me rather one chip, plus the price of the antes and unplayable bring-ins that I had to pay, to catch this playable hand .
And that would amount to 1+ 3 +1 or "5" chips. So 5 chips is what it really cost me to call the one chip bring in.
Do you feel that Mr. Wiz’s deductions are logical?
And if all or part of them are examples of “Fuzzy thinking” (a term for illogical poker deductions coined in a previous millennia)
Which ones would they be? And for what reasons ?
Most Sincerely,
Doc AZ