JRich1230
10-14-2004, 12:59 AM
I am perfect calculating my own odds to make my hand at every stage, but have never bene able to figure out how percentages are calculated during televisted tournaments.
E.G:
John holds A/A
Jim holds T/T
Pretty much makes Jim a 4:1 dog. Now, does that assume that he has 20 % to make his set, assuming both players stay in til the river? If so, I could see how he would win 1/5 times. However, how does the fact that John has 20 % to make his higher set fit in? If possible, no need to include catching straights/flushes/etc... I think there is a simple answer to this question and I am just making it more difficult than need be.
Thanks in advance
JRich1230
E.G:
John holds A/A
Jim holds T/T
Pretty much makes Jim a 4:1 dog. Now, does that assume that he has 20 % to make his set, assuming both players stay in til the river? If so, I could see how he would win 1/5 times. However, how does the fact that John has 20 % to make his higher set fit in? If possible, no need to include catching straights/flushes/etc... I think there is a simple answer to this question and I am just making it more difficult than need be.
Thanks in advance
JRich1230