Stork
10-06-2004, 06:31 PM
You ante, if you like your hand you play. If you fold, you lose your ante. If you win, you're payed 1 to 1 on both the ante and the play bet. If dealer doesn't qualify (with Queen high or better), ante is payed 1 to 1 and the play bet is a push.
If all this is correct, can someone explain to me why the house has a 3.4% edge?
If you calculate the average winning hand, and only play when you have it beat, shouldn't that give the player a huge edge? Not to mention the bonus payouts on the ante for having a good hand.
I realize that sometimes you'll be folding a winner, but is that strong enough to tip the scales in the house's favor?
*And yes, I'm intentionally ignoring the Pair Plus option.
If all this is correct, can someone explain to me why the house has a 3.4% edge?
If you calculate the average winning hand, and only play when you have it beat, shouldn't that give the player a huge edge? Not to mention the bonus payouts on the ante for having a good hand.
I realize that sometimes you'll be folding a winner, but is that strong enough to tip the scales in the house's favor?
*And yes, I'm intentionally ignoring the Pair Plus option.