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dgoldsmith
10-01-2004, 01:03 PM
From page 18:

"To a large degree, all hands in a particular group should be played the same way before the flop. Thus, if in a certain situation it is correct to raise with AQ, it is correct to raise with KQ suited. If it is correct to fold two eights 'wired', it is correct to fold AJ offsuit."

In the case of the second example, both 88 and AJo are in Group 4.

However, in the first example, AQ is in Group 3 while KQs is in Group 2. I'm trying to figure out if this is a typo and they meant to compare AQ suited to KQs (both are Group 2 hands) or if they were trying to make the point that if it is worth raising with lower Groups, it is also worth raising with higher Groups (seems like this would be obvious).

If there is a URL/site somewhere with known errata for 2+2 books, please let me know.

Dave

dragon14
10-01-2004, 06:36 PM
I think that the point the authors wish to make is that all hands in a particular group should be played the same way to a large degree. If the example is not perfect I would assume the core idea is the point and that the example is incorrect.

I would substitute another group two hand and go with the core idea rather than worry any more over it.

sthief09
10-03-2004, 08:20 AM
if you raise group 3, then raise groups 2 and 1 also
if you fold group 4, then fold all group 4 hands

what's so hard about that?

also, you'll go a lot farther if use your brain rather than a hand rankings chart. there are plenty of situations where KQs is a muck while AQo is a raise.