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View Full Version : What constitutes a misdeal?


07-23-2001, 07:02 PM
I play in a couple weekly home games and this comes up pretty often:


In Hold 'Em, when does an exposed card constitute a misdeal?


I have the understanding that if the blinds receive an exposed card (first or second) then its a misdeal. If any other player gets an exposed card you continue to deal, give them another card after the button is dealt their second and use the exposed card for the burn. A friend says its also a misdeal if the button gets an exposed card.


Maybe we're both wrong, who knows. Can someone please clarify. Thanks.


KJS

07-23-2001, 07:53 PM
I believe this varies from poker room to poker room. I know it is different from ring games to tournaments.


I know Bob Ciaffone has "poker rule" book for download. I am not sure if it gives more details.


http://www.diamondcs.net/~thecoach/


Ken Poklitar

07-23-2001, 09:32 PM
Thanks.


It says only a misdeal if the first or second cards of the hand are exposed. Is that your experience?


KJS

08-28-2001, 12:15 PM
in hold em, either the first or the second card of the hand is the whole deal. if any card is exposed in the deal it should be considered a misdeal. in home games, we play that any player can ask for a misdeal if a card is exposed, or if extra cards are dealt.