Discounting overcards in 6 max

[Your Mom]

Ed Miller divides overcards by 2 when calculating outs. This seems too much to me with only 2 or 3 opponents most of the time. How much value do you give overcards with with no backdoor draws.

Example: 2 limpers. You raise AK in the BB. Flop comes Q83, no draws. You bet, one call, and then a raise. How many "outs" do you give yourself? 3, 4.5, or closer to 6?

[Scotch78]

Since no one cold-called pre-flop, it's harder to discount something like Q8 or 33, so I wouldn't give myself the full 6. Let's say I raised UTG though, and I knew the flop raiser liked to slowplay his bigger hands. In that situation I'd take the full 6.

Scott

[Peter_rus]

You must not discount any outs for likely the best overcards on flop as future odds let you override times you drawing dead on flop. Quite often you must call your overcards even if you have not proper immediate odds. Future odds trashed on turn so on turn you must... hmm. I guess count then as 4.5-5 outs on most boards.

[Nemesis]

I think you're confusing implied odds with what he's asking peter. Maybe you're not and i'm just not interpreting you right? I think you HAVE to discount some outs on flops like this i usually discount it to 4 outs personally in a situation like this, a little less than half. Your implied odds with the turn do help, but if you make it there and still miss it's time to reevaluate and perhaps fold or if heads up decide if you're ahead.