Who makes the error here?

[Atropos]

Hey folks,
I think you all know the fundamental theorem of poker explained in "Theory of Poker". Now here is a situation where I dont know how to apply it:
Hero got As Kd Caller got 2h 7d
Board is: 4h 6h Th 8h Ts

Both got equal stack sizes, pot size is very small, lets say 10$ and Hero goes all-in at the river for 1000$, meaning caller has to be correct at least 50% of the time he makes this call. His play if he knows his opponents hole cards is of course to call. But my question is, isnt heros play if he knows the opponents hole cards totally correct too? I dont mean the massive overbetting, but just the fact that it is more than likely that Caller will fold his flush nearly everytime?

[cnfuzzd]

Poker is a game of imperfect information, and because of that, there really are a variety of "correct" plays.

peace

john nickle

[Louie Landale]

The FTOP doesn't presume you are going to show it down. Nothing in there that says you cannot bluff. So Hero IS playing correct if he knows he's beat and also knows Villian isn't going to call. He's playing "incorrect" if he check fearing Villian has the 9h and will call with it.

- Louie

[Atropos]

So it is right to say if you try to bluff and someone calls you down with something ridiculous which is still good enough to beat your bluff, you lost because of a bad call?

[cnfuzzd]

no,, you made a bad read. You may say "how can you call with that," but what you should really be saying is "how did i bet with my crap"

peace

john nickle