05-29-2002, 12:05 PM
Question #1:
When deciding to implement implied odds, should I be drawing to the
nuts or near nuts? And just calculate my immediate odds for other
decisions? (I want to ignore effective odds...more on this later)
Question #2:
I realize odds can be extremely complicated, but just wanted some
feedback if there is a method to my madness pertaining to
my approach of odds on the flop….
Two examples in which you flop bottom pair on the flop:
45s in BB…Flop K84 rainbow…No Backdoor flush.
5 outer…Approx 8.5 to 1 immediate odds (10.5 %)…However
I would estimate that even if I hit, there is about a 20%
chance I will get rivered. Therefore I will only win around
8.5%..Which translates to about 11.5 to 1 odds I would need.
Next: 45 spades in BB Flop K84 with 2 clubs..
Now I probably only have 4 outs, but think if I hit perfect I’ll get
rivered approx. 45-50% of the time. Therefore I figure I’ll win
about 4.5 % of the time, in which I would need a whopping 23.5 to
1 to continue.
Are my estimations of getting rivered in the ballpark? What about
my overall calculations…Did I forget to take into consideration that
I will sometimes hit the turn card but get rivered, and am in a sense
putting in more money than my calculations show , which may even
raise the odds more?
Question #3:
Is it really necessary to figure your effective odds on the flop?
Can’t I just compute my odds on a round by round basis similar
to the above?
When deciding to implement implied odds, should I be drawing to the
nuts or near nuts? And just calculate my immediate odds for other
decisions? (I want to ignore effective odds...more on this later)
Question #2:
I realize odds can be extremely complicated, but just wanted some
feedback if there is a method to my madness pertaining to
my approach of odds on the flop….
Two examples in which you flop bottom pair on the flop:
45s in BB…Flop K84 rainbow…No Backdoor flush.
5 outer…Approx 8.5 to 1 immediate odds (10.5 %)…However
I would estimate that even if I hit, there is about a 20%
chance I will get rivered. Therefore I will only win around
8.5%..Which translates to about 11.5 to 1 odds I would need.
Next: 45 spades in BB Flop K84 with 2 clubs..
Now I probably only have 4 outs, but think if I hit perfect I’ll get
rivered approx. 45-50% of the time. Therefore I figure I’ll win
about 4.5 % of the time, in which I would need a whopping 23.5 to
1 to continue.
Are my estimations of getting rivered in the ballpark? What about
my overall calculations…Did I forget to take into consideration that
I will sometimes hit the turn card but get rivered, and am in a sense
putting in more money than my calculations show , which may even
raise the odds more?
Question #3:
Is it really necessary to figure your effective odds on the flop?
Can’t I just compute my odds on a round by round basis similar
to the above?