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03-05-2002, 08:40 PM
Where would you expect to find the median (50th percentile) versus the mean (simple average) player based on results? Above, below, same? If you suspect there is a skew, how do you explain it?

03-05-2002, 11:17 PM
This probably depends on how you take the sample:


(a) Random sample of all players who ever played casion poker for money


(b) random sample of all players sitting at a poker table at a certain point in time


(a) weighs all players equally, while (b) weighs players according to the hours they play, so a pro who plays 2000h/year will count 200 times more than a tourist in his 10h session on his yearly weekend trip to Vegas.


With method (a), I'd guess the median is well above the mean b/c the gigantic hourly losses of suckers who gave poker a shot and lost their money never to play again will dominate the mean while a newcomer who scores a lucky first session will usually play longer and thus will only show moderate hourly rates. Regular players won't play much of a role here as their results can be expected to be centered within a +/- 3BB/hour range and they are outnumbered by the occasional players anyway.


With method (b) the results will be closer and the mean is soley determined by the avg. rake. Still I think that, as it is easier to lose much than to win much, the median would still be higher than the mean. (That doesn't mean that your median player is winning; just that he loses less than the avg. rake.)


cu


Ignatius