Mark S
08-30-2004, 06:30 AM
The term "bad beat" and its synonyms are thrown around so often, yet it seems that we really have no common reference point on what that term means. So I was hoping that we could really define this term.
I propose the following definition:
You experience a "bad beat" when x % of your money goes into the pot when you have a y % of ending up with the best hand, but still lose at the showdown. (X and Y are just variables, I'm not sure what their real values might be)
So here are a couple examples to help clarify:
NL, $100 max buy in (and let's say that's what everyone has): You hold AA UTG and limp in, planning to reraise. To your disappointment, there is no raise, and the flop comes d own K 4 2, no suit. You bet $15, are reraised all in, and call. Your opponent shows pocket kings, having flopped a set. By my definition, is this a bad beat? No. All your money went in when you were a huge underdog.
Same situation, except this time you move all in UTG, and are called by KK. When he hits the set, that is a bad beat...again, because all your money went in when you were a huge favorite.
Does anyone have any revisions for this definition? I suppose it could be revised to also include your opponent's pot odds, such that even though most of your money went in when you had the best hand (say top set on a two tone flop) and your opponent hits his flush, are you really 'outdrawn?'
Anyways any revisions to this hand, and maybe someone suggesting real numbers for the x and y variables, would be appreciated.
All the best,
Mark S.
I propose the following definition:
You experience a "bad beat" when x % of your money goes into the pot when you have a y % of ending up with the best hand, but still lose at the showdown. (X and Y are just variables, I'm not sure what their real values might be)
So here are a couple examples to help clarify:
NL, $100 max buy in (and let's say that's what everyone has): You hold AA UTG and limp in, planning to reraise. To your disappointment, there is no raise, and the flop comes d own K 4 2, no suit. You bet $15, are reraised all in, and call. Your opponent shows pocket kings, having flopped a set. By my definition, is this a bad beat? No. All your money went in when you were a huge underdog.
Same situation, except this time you move all in UTG, and are called by KK. When he hits the set, that is a bad beat...again, because all your money went in when you were a huge favorite.
Does anyone have any revisions for this definition? I suppose it could be revised to also include your opponent's pot odds, such that even though most of your money went in when you had the best hand (say top set on a two tone flop) and your opponent hits his flush, are you really 'outdrawn?'
Anyways any revisions to this hand, and maybe someone suggesting real numbers for the x and y variables, would be appreciated.
All the best,
Mark S.