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View Full Version : Question on Miller's Scenario


chifari
08-07-2004, 08:08 PM
In the scenario given at the beginning of postflop play, why is calling bad? I've looked all through the book, and I can't find an answer to this question (the book says after you read it, you'll know the answer, but I guess I'm slooow). Mathematically, calling and raising run about the same in expectation in simulations I and my friends have done. The only thing I can figure is that you raise to try to get a free card.

Scenario is Qh 7h, person limps, another raises, you call (a mistake), blinds call. Flop comes Jc 7s 5h. First dude checks, original raiser bets. You call, but why is this a major mistake? I don't see it.

Folding in crazy random games on partypoker doesn't seem horrible, although the odds say the hand is worth playing. I don't see the huge difference between expectation if you raise versus call, though. What am I missing?

chif

Fnord
08-07-2004, 08:14 PM
Because raising forces out other hands that might have called for 1 SB and beat you. In a big pot, a lot of hands are correct (or not horribly incorrect) calling 1SB on the flop. It really takes 2SB or more to force the issue.

Richard Berg
08-08-2004, 02:26 AM
Reread the section called "protecting your hand." You want hands like T9 and A7 to fold.