ElSapo
08-06-2004, 08:00 PM
I don't normally go for probability/math questions, but this one occured to me while I was cutting jalapenos for a mango chutney to go with some salmon I want to grill. No idea how it's gonna turn out...
Anyways, suppose in a limit ring-game a given hand has a given value (I can't find the oft-posted link right now). Hand XX is worth YY BBs.
Now, say a player splits his time between tournaments and ring games. Hypothetically he has a $3,000 bankroll and is playing 5/10 and the corresponding level of tournaments.
Should a pair of aces be worth the same amount of money in both the tournament and ring game? Is it possible to make a comparison like this?
I don't know if there are hard figures to something like this, and I'm not asking anyone to do the math if it's out there. More of a general question. Any thoughts?
ElSapo
Anyways, suppose in a limit ring-game a given hand has a given value (I can't find the oft-posted link right now). Hand XX is worth YY BBs.
Now, say a player splits his time between tournaments and ring games. Hypothetically he has a $3,000 bankroll and is playing 5/10 and the corresponding level of tournaments.
Should a pair of aces be worth the same amount of money in both the tournament and ring game? Is it possible to make a comparison like this?
I don't know if there are hard figures to something like this, and I'm not asking anyone to do the math if it's out there. More of a general question. Any thoughts?
ElSapo