schubes
07-26-2004, 10:28 PM
How often, when you're heads-up and you miss the flop (the flop isn't paired, and you don't have a pp) does your opponent have a pair? We'll assume you're a LAG and raise PF with almost any two, and your opponent is loose-passive and calls with any two. Thus you both have random hands.
I play a fair amount of heads-up, and have wondered this, but never sat down and calculated it 'till the "flop missed everyone" thread. The calculation is pretty much in this post (http://forumserver.twoplustwo.com/showthreaded.php?Cat=&Number=860482&page=0&view=co llapsed&sb=5&o=14&vc=1).
1-((32/47)*(34/46) + (6/47)*(35/46)) ~ 40%
I just wanted to show a seemingly usefull application from that thread. Of course, any replies are welcome.
I play a fair amount of heads-up, and have wondered this, but never sat down and calculated it 'till the "flop missed everyone" thread. The calculation is pretty much in this post (http://forumserver.twoplustwo.com/showthreaded.php?Cat=&Number=860482&page=0&view=co llapsed&sb=5&o=14&vc=1).
1-((32/47)*(34/46) + (6/47)*(35/46)) ~ 40%
I just wanted to show a seemingly usefull application from that thread. Of course, any replies are welcome.