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View Full Version : What is this math effect called?


Al Mirpuri
07-26-2004, 07:48 AM
Let me illustrate the math effect I am enquiring about with an example from Hold'em. If an Ace flops, it is likely someone active has an Ace in thier hand as well. However, if two Aces flop it becomes a little less likely that someone active has an Ace in their hand as two are on the board. If three Aces flop, it then becomes even less likely that someone has an Ace in their hand as their is only one Ace left unaccounted for. What is the name of this math effect?

BruceZ
07-26-2004, 08:00 AM
[ QUOTE ]
Let me illustrate the math effect I am enquiring about with an example from Hold'em. If an Ace flops, it is likely someone active has an Ace in thier hand as well. However, if two Aces flop it becomes a little less likely that someone active has an Ace in their hand as two are on the board. If three Aces flop, it then becomes even less likely that someone has an Ace in their hand as their is only one Ace left unaccounted for. What is the name of this math effect?

[/ QUOTE ]

Dependence (http://forumserver.twoplustwo.com/showthreaded.php?Cat=&Number=862179&page=0&view=ex panded&sb=5&o=14&fpart=#862179).

ohgeetee
07-27-2004, 09:41 AM
I think you are describing how Bayes Theorem relates to poker.

kyro
07-27-2004, 01:34 PM
you're wrong. i always lose my entire stack when i have the top full house with three of one kind on the board...heads up too. i think with three Aces on the board the odds of someone having the case ace (rhymed beeotch) is about 90 percent. trust me on this.

Nottom
07-28-2004, 01:01 PM
I feel the same way about whenever the board flops a 3 flush.

playerfl
07-28-2004, 02:32 PM
Thats what I thought, "Bayesian Inference".

demonx5
07-28-2004, 03:30 PM
Mutual exclusivity (which is also dependence so BruceZ you had it but I just rephrased it), but basically for every ace on the board you know that it can't also be in someone's hand, thus affecting the probability of that particular event.

ohgeetee
07-28-2004, 04:23 PM
They neede to reintroduce the Bayes Theorem with compensation for the Action Flop. I guess it would be the Bayes Anti Theorem?

playerfl
07-28-2004, 04:26 PM
did anybody actually try to prove there was such a thing as an "action flop" ?

ohgeetee
07-30-2004, 09:45 AM
The proof on RGP is all the times their AA was beaten. It came out to almost $25% of the time!

My dry sense of humor(or lack thereof) doesnt bode well in a text environment. I was and still am being facetious 8)