SoCalPat
07-24-2004, 02:48 PM
Or does it even make a difference?
I was in late MP with A /images/graemlins/spade.gif 5 /images/graemlins/spade.gif and two other players had called the raise cold. Does UTG being all-in give me leeway to be more liberal here, seeing he can't bet me out of the pot on the flop?
Also, if the other players in the hand aren't as observant of UTG's stack, or lack thereof, I might be calling two cold PF, but with the chance to get a free card on the turn, since the rest of the field might check, fearing a raise (and one that won't come).
In this instance, I called and the flop missed me completely, but I saw the turn for free and dropped when I had no chance of hitting my draw or improving.
So, does an all-in player give you more leeway in calling a raise with a drawing hand, or should I just play as if UTG had a stack in front of him?
I was in late MP with A /images/graemlins/spade.gif 5 /images/graemlins/spade.gif and two other players had called the raise cold. Does UTG being all-in give me leeway to be more liberal here, seeing he can't bet me out of the pot on the flop?
Also, if the other players in the hand aren't as observant of UTG's stack, or lack thereof, I might be calling two cold PF, but with the chance to get a free card on the turn, since the rest of the field might check, fearing a raise (and one that won't come).
In this instance, I called and the flop missed me completely, but I saw the turn for free and dropped when I had no chance of hitting my draw or improving.
So, does an all-in player give you more leeway in calling a raise with a drawing hand, or should I just play as if UTG had a stack in front of him?