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View Full Version : figuring out odds to make a hand??


kleraudio
07-23-2004, 08:28 PM
Hello, I think i just blanked, can someone help me with this. how do i take my outs and figure out what my odds are against making my hand. Like flush draw is 4:1 against. how do i calculate that. I know that with a flush draw i have 9 outs assuming they are all live. how do i get to 4:1.

thanks in advance for the help

Jim /images/graemlins/spade.gif

benfranklin
07-23-2004, 09:50 PM
Your probability of hitting the draw, as a percent, is roughly your outs times the number of cards to come times two. On the flop, a 4-flush has 9 outs times 2 cards to come times 2 = 36% chance of making the hand, or a little less than 2-1 against. On the turn, 9 outs times 1 card times 2 is 18%, or a little over 4-1 against. Obviously not precise, but close enough in this range.

M50Paul
07-24-2004, 05:57 AM
Just like texas holdem has a short cut for calculating the odds i.e. at the folp 4X your outs does stud have a similar metric?

Kurn, son of Mogh
07-24-2004, 11:22 AM
On the turn you've seen 6 cards, leaving 46 unseen, 9 make the flush, 37 do not. 37/9 = 4.11

topgun32
07-24-2004, 09:20 PM
Why isnt it 9 out of 47 which would be 1 in 5?

If i had 5 cups and you had to pick the one with the ball under it you would have a 1 in 5 shot not 1 in 4?

illunious
07-24-2004, 10:18 PM
[ QUOTE ]
Why isnt it 9 out of 47 which would be 1 in 5?

[/ QUOTE ]

You are confusing probability with odds. Here's a link (http://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/56706.html) that may help.

afk
07-24-2004, 10:21 PM
[ QUOTE ]
Why isnt it 9 out of 47 which would be 1 in 5?

If i had 5 cups and you had to pick the one with the ball under it you would have a 1 in 5 shot not 1 in 4?

[/ QUOTE ]

Your question is a common one.

When you talk about odds you always refer to the number of times an event happens compared to the number of times it doesn't. If you add them together you get the total number of trials.

In your example, there are 5 cups and assuming you guess randomly you're going to pick the wrong cup 4 times, and the correct cup once, you are a 4:1 underdog to pick the right cup. In the flush example, there are 47 unseen cards on the flop, 9 of them help you and 38 of them don't. You are a 38:9, simplified to 4.22:1 underdog to hit your card on the turn. If you miss on the turn there are now 46 unseen cards and still 9 that will help and 37 that won't. 37:9 = 4.11:1 underdog to hit on the river.

I hope this helps!

catalinuzzu
07-25-2004, 11:08 AM

Leo Bello
07-25-2004, 11:25 AM
Pot Odds (http://www.cardplayer.com/poker_magazine/archives/showarticle.php?a_id=13913)

Another good link for you.

kleraudio
09-21-2004, 06:36 PM
thanks for the help everyone, i had one more question

ok when youve seen the flop you have 9 outs and 46 unseen cards. 9 help 37 dont, that is a 4.1:1 against. I would imagine that before the turn is seen you have better odds, but with this system you dont. because there are 47 unseen cards now so your odds against are 4.2:1. They should be better however, what am i missing.

Jim /images/graemlins/spade.gif