vector
07-21-2004, 07:37 AM
In Chapter 4 of TTOP Sklansky states that 5% or less of average future bets is a small ante while 15% or more is a large ante structure.
Applying this to a 5-10 six max game where the blinds are 5 and 2 (no ante), is this equivalent to saying that the ante is 7/6 = $1.17?
Average future bets are $7.50 (5,5,10,10).
The ante is thus 15.5% of average future bets, making this a large ante structure, and thus making it correct to play more hands than usual.
Are these calculations reasonable, and is this the main reason why it is correct to play more hands in short handed games?
If the "ante" was reduced to 5% of average future bets would this mean a tight strategy is preferable or are there other compelling reasons to play looser when short handed?
Applying this to a 5-10 six max game where the blinds are 5 and 2 (no ante), is this equivalent to saying that the ante is 7/6 = $1.17?
Average future bets are $7.50 (5,5,10,10).
The ante is thus 15.5% of average future bets, making this a large ante structure, and thus making it correct to play more hands than usual.
Are these calculations reasonable, and is this the main reason why it is correct to play more hands in short handed games?
If the "ante" was reduced to 5% of average future bets would this mean a tight strategy is preferable or are there other compelling reasons to play looser when short handed?