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vector
07-21-2004, 07:37 AM
In Chapter 4 of TTOP Sklansky states that 5% or less of average future bets is a small ante while 15% or more is a large ante structure.

Applying this to a 5-10 six max game where the blinds are 5 and 2 (no ante), is this equivalent to saying that the ante is 7/6 = $1.17?

Average future bets are $7.50 (5,5,10,10).

The ante is thus 15.5% of average future bets, making this a large ante structure, and thus making it correct to play more hands than usual.

Are these calculations reasonable, and is this the main reason why it is correct to play more hands in short handed games?

If the "ante" was reduced to 5% of average future bets would this mean a tight strategy is preferable or are there other compelling reasons to play looser when short handed?

Louie Landale
07-21-2004, 01:05 PM
Comparing the blinds to his ante games isn't perfect. With more folks in an ante game the ante ratio remains constant (such as $1 in a $10 game); but it diminishes in a blind structured game since the blinds ..err.. initial pot size remains constant but the number of players increases.

If you are in a blind game then you'll need to divide the total blinds by the total players to get your 1.17 "ante". Divide that by the bet of $5 and you get "ante ratio" of 24%; a "large ante" game.

And no surprise, short handed holdem does feature folks playing a lot higher percentage of hands compared to a full table.

- Louie

Smalling ante ratio means you play less hands if your goal is to win showdowns cost-effectively. However, as the opponents play less hands you can steal more; in some games you can letterally steal them blind. But over-all you play less hands.